"Hannu Savolainen" <hannu@email-addr-hidden> writes:
> If you run out from barber's shop without paying it's very clearly a
> crime. You have stolen 1/N of barber's monthly salary. Is there anything
> that makes 1/Nth if artist's or programmer's salary less criminal than
> stealing 1/Nth of barber's salary?
This is a laughably simplistic model of economic and social
reality. Suppose next to the barber B1 a second barber B2 moves in who
is subsidized by the government and can charge lower prices. B1 sees a
drop in his wages, so that he cannot afford a haircut anymore, and
runs out of B2's shop after having his hair cut. Now B2 comes into
B1's shop to have a haircut. Is he guilty of a crime if he runs out or
not?
>If you don't like the model of selling intellectual property then your
>moral right is to refuse using such work. But I don't think you have any
>rights to use the work without paying.
That is not correct. If you don't like the model of selling
intellectual property your "moral right" is not bound by how people who
like the model think you should behave. Moreover these things are
never about "moral rights" but about how effective the strategy for
enforcing your "Intellectual Property" rights is.
Immanuel
Received on Sun Feb 26 20:19:10 2006
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