On Wed, 2006-02-22 at 13:13 +0000, Immanuel Litzroth wrote:
> "Hannu Savolainen" <hannu@email-addr-hidden> writes:
>
>
> > If you run out from barber's shop without paying it's very clearly a
> > crime. You have stolen 1/N of barber's monthly salary. Is there anything
> > that makes 1/Nth if artist's or programmer's salary less criminal than
> > stealing 1/Nth of barber's salary?
>
> This is a laughably simplistic model of economic and social
> reality. Suppose next to the barber B1 a second barber B2 moves in who
> is subsidized by the government and can charge lower prices. B1 sees a
> drop in his wages, so that he cannot afford a haircut anymore, and
> runs out of B2's shop after having his hair cut. Now B2 comes into
> B1's shop to have a haircut. Is he guilty of a crime if he runs out or
> not?
They are both guilty, as they both ran out. And this is a pretty good
argument that the government should not subsidize barbers ;-)
Lee
Received on Sun Feb 26 20:19:28 2006
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